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July 14, 2025 1:14 pm at 1:14 pm
#2424909
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ujm
Participant
No one so far has even tried to justify how the US government had the right to seize without compensation the property of slaveowners, especially of owners who remained loyal to the Union as well as slaveowners in non-Confederate states, *PRIOR* to the enactment of the 13th Amendment.
It was a clear-cut case of violating the slaveowners constitutional rights (and the Constitution implicitly or explicitly condoned slavery) under the Takings Clause of the 5th Amendment.
The government owes slaveowners compensation.